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What is the probability that gcd(n,m)=1? (utm.edu)
24 points by hhm on Aug 29, 2008 | hide | past | favorite | 6 comments



That was very cool-- a CAPTCHA that uses number theory to calculate Pi as a side effect.....


Good reading at that link. Thanks!


One of the oddest things about math, to most people, is how a constant like pi, from geometry, appears in all kinds of things that have little or nothing to do with circles.


I still remember having to figure this out for a takehome exam in number theory.


This is a poorly-formed question, because there's no such thing as a uniform randomly-chosen integer. It's more accurate to say that the probability of gcd(m, n) = 1, with m and n chosen from {1, ..., N}, approaches 6/pi^2 as N -> infinity.




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