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There is a future tense in English, through the use of auxiliary verbs. Just because it's not formed by affixing a morpheme doesn't mean it cannot be thought of as a future tense.

The question is : does it behave like one ?

« Hungarian has no word for "to have" »

Just like Finnish and, curiously enough, Russian.

On the other hand, Russian has several movement verbs that don't exist in English nor in French ("to swim" will be either "плавать" or "плыть", for instance)



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